Hi again Dandi
There is only one purpose in the Jehovah's Witnesses translation of the Bible, and that is to deny the deity of Christ. This Bible is such a heresy that all the major websites that carry hundreds of translations of the Bible for purposes of study, refused to carry the New World testament.
Let's not take my word for let's look at their Bible and see if your quote that they are taught to discern the Scriptures by using logic.
The teaching methods of Jehovah's witnesses are highly based on logical reasoning from the scriptures. Everyone is encouraged to reason for themselves from the scriptures, and discouraged from just accepting what is said to them by anyone. In other words, Jehovah's Witnesses believe that if you can't make sense of a teaching by examining God's word for yourself, then you shouldn't accept it.
But before we go anywhere let's look at the two verses and revelations that we have questions about their meaning. To make this easier I am posting the two verses as translated by the unknown scholars of the New World testament.
Revelation 14:4 These are the ones that did not defile themselves with women; in fact, they are virgins. These are the ones that keep following the Lamb no matter where he goes. These were bought from among mankind as firstfruits to God and to the Lamb, (NWT)
In revelations 14 the first sentence of verse four makes it clear that we are talking about one group, one gender. The New World translation cannot accomplish what it hoped to by translating, "among man" to "among mankind." But this was not enough to overcome the limitations of the group placed on it by the first sentence.
Revelations 7:4 And I heard the number of those who were sealed, a hundred and forty-four thousand, sealed out of
every tribe of the
sons of Israel: (NWT)
Revelations 7 is very clear that we are talking about people from the 12 tribes of the sons of Israel. These are not Gentiles from Kansas City. There is not a lot of logic needed to draw this conclusion, in fact it takes very little common sense to come out with the correct doctrine concerning the 144,000.
Most people are aware of the major discrepancy between the New World testament and all other translations of the Bible that is contained in John 1. This is of a course in attempt to label Christ as a god but a minor god not worthy of worship. But let's go past this verse in John and look at some of the other problems we have with this translation. The JW's have translated the same word (proskunevw) when referring to God the father as "worship" but when referring to Christ as "obeisance" meaning honor.
Matthew 4:10 proskunevw = worship
Matthew 2:8 proskunevw = obeisance
This discrepancy is found throughout the verses of the Bible and not just limited to these two Matthews. The reason I bring this up is in two other verses we see another discrepancy on the translation of the word, "kavmptw"
Philippians 2:10 CSB
so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow- of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth-
10 so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, (NWT)
Ephesians 3:14 For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,
14 On account of this I bend my knees to the Father, (NWT)
Now you may wonder why I am pointing out this discrepancy which at first glance appears to be minor. So what if the JW's bow down to Christ? After all man does bow to King's and this is not considered worship. But this is not so with the Jews who wrote the Bible including the New Testament. If you do not believe this I suggested she read the book of Esther and pay pacific attention to Chapter 3.
Again referring to your quote that the JW's are taught to use logic, may I inform you and the other readers of this thread that the JW's teach that
Jesus is the Archangel Michael. Are they putting themselves above Christ? Are not the angels to be judged by man? 1 Corinthians 6:3 (KJV) Know ye not that we shall judge angels? how much more things that pertain to this life?
I think I have to mention that when we talk about Christ and who he is we must concern ourselves with the one He called Father. The JW's are quick to point out that the Trinity cannot be one if Christ prayed to the Father. I would like to point out that it is Christ in the flesh, the man, who prayed to the Father. So let's analyze this relationship that Christ has with the Father and who the Father is. For this I like to go back and look at two versus in Matthews.
Matthew 1:18 KJV
Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together , she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
18 But the birth of Jesus Christ was in this way. During the time his mother Mary was promised in marriage to Joseph, she was found to be pregnant by holy spirit before they were united.(NWT)
Matthew 28:19 KJV Go, therefore, and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
19 Go therefore and make disciples of people of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit (NWT)
Note that in both verses the King James version and most other Bibles capitalize Holy Ghost but the New World testament does not. You say so what JB as no big deal, oh but it is. This is an attempt to show that the Holy Ghost is not in fact an entity or a separate deity. When discussing this with JW's I have been told when questioning them on who is the father of Christ, that the Holy Ghost and the Father are one and the same. Of course in Matthew 28:19 we run into a major problem for those of you that are taught to use logic when reading the Bible. We see the Father the Son and the Holy Ghost listed separately but under one name. Logically speaking if the Father and the Holy Ghost are the same entity then why should it not read in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Father? Why is the Holy Ghost even listed?
We can get into the STAKE and THE KINGDOM HALL later.
In Love
JB