Bible Talk > Sound doctrine
Why Doctrine?
Fat:
--- Quote from: fredjames on October 18, 2017, 10:48:19 pm ---Hi there everyone in discussion in regards to this Thread, and peace be with you in the name of LORD JESUS CHRIST. By witnessing your quotation of Scriptures in regards to 'doctrine', only in part testifies merely the beginning of the Gospel doctrine. That is the preaching and teaching of salvation and where initially people who believe, have come into repentance, and many are already well verse of that.
Well, are these the only Scriptures for doctrine in the New Testament that justifies a Christian's salvation and promise in full?
What about the 'sound doctrine', according to 2Timothy3:16&17, that the 'man of GOD' may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works?
--- End quote ---
Hello Fred,
Glad to meet you. I see you use the KJV, I use the NAS see the deference below. Of coarse there are many more New Testament. In the OT it starts with Gen 3:15 and in the NT Matt 1:21:, Mark 1:15, Luke 1:17, John 1:12, 13. What I am trying to say Fred is that you could the GOOD news all throughout the Scriptures far to many to list on this thread.
2Timothy3:16. All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17. so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work.
Blessings
Fat
fredjames:
--- Quote from: Fat on October 19, 2017, 12:20:29 am ---Hello Fred,
Glad to meet you. I see you use the KJV, I use the NAS see the deference below. Of coarse there are many more New Testament. In the OT it starts with Gen 3:15 and in the NT Matt 1:21:, Mark 1:15, Luke 1:17, John 1:12, 13. What I am trying to say Fred is that you could the GOOD news all throughout the Scriptures far to many to list on this thread.
2Timothy3:16. All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17. so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work.
Blessings
Fat
--- End quote ---
Dear 'Fat', are you really 'fat', or just a 'nickname'?
Nevertheless, back to discussion, i would want to say that there is no major contradictory difference between both 'versions', in order to nullify one another. When the KJV version uses the word 'may be perfect', and is in conjuction with what CHRIST said in the Gospel, that;
"Be ye perfect as your FATHER in Heaven is perfect."
And with, 'thoroughly furnished', which means, 'equipped with whatever is needed.' Or, 'supplied with furniture'. While yours is 'equipped', that is, 'for every good work'.
Fat:
Hi Fred
Matthew 5:48 does not use the same wording.
Matthew 5:48
teleios
2 Timothy 3:17
artios
Even the NKJV makes the distinction :
Matt 5:48 Therefore you shall be perfect (teleios), just as your Father in heaven is perfect.
2 Tim 3:17 that the man of God may be complete (artios), thoroughly equipped for every good work.
I grew up on the KJV and was bless by reading it, but it has flaws like I have.
So "What about the 'sound doctrine', according to 2Timothy3:16&17"
I am sola scriptura and do not believe in following out side of His word. And I do not believe that I should allow the Pope or any other religious leader to be the Ultimate authority on what the Scriptures say. Interpretation is important to me.
So yes, All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;
In His Service
Fat (Phatt)
JB Horn:
I think the forum rules require that you be able to backup your post with scripture.
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