I have been studying different translations of the Bible in an attempt to educate myself on the thinking of other denominations. I recently reviewed the New World Testament, this is the Jehovah's witnesses translation.
I think most of us are aware of the controversy concerning John 1 in this translation. I really don't see that going over this would serve much purpose and I believe that we all have heard each other's arguments concerning the interpretation of (a) god versus the interpretation of God. There is one thing I like to point out though, in John 1, it is that is consistent with other translations showing that Christ existed before the creation of the earth, therefore he must have existed during the time our Father gave the Old Testament to us through the prophets.
What I like to discuss is two versus that seem to counter each other. I'll post both of versus in the translation given by the New World Testament. I like to point out that most other versions of the Bible or other translations of the Bible translate these two verses basically the same as does the NWT except that the NWT ends with a (?) at the end of Isa 45:21 and I could find no other translation that does this. However the two verses taken out of the NWT do seem to contradict John 1 of the NWT.
NWT 2 Pet 3:17 YOU, therefore, beloved ones, having this advance knowledge, be on YOUR guard that YOU may not be led away with them by the error of the law-defying people and fall from YOUR own steadfastness. 18 No, but go on growing in the undeserved kindness and knowledge of our Lord and
Savior Jesus Christ. To him [be] the glory both now and to the day of eternity.
NWT Isa 45:21 Make YOUR report and YOUR presentation. Yes, let them consult together in unity. Who has caused this to be heard from a long time ago? [Who] has reported it from that very time? Is it not I, Jehovah, besides whom there is no other God; a righteous God and
a Savior, there being none excepting me?
What we see here in Isaiah 45:21 and second Peter 3:18, is a contradiction when speaking of the Savior. Note that both versus the words Savior. The Old Testament states that there is no other God and righteous God and Savior there is none existing but me. However in 2 Peter we see that this translation acknowledges Jesus Christ to be the Savior also capitalized.
So my question is if Jesus is a god (John1:1) and Savior (2 Pet 3:18) how can the statement that, "
there is no other God; a righteous God and a Savior, there being none excepting me?" be true?
JB