Couple of things I like to start off with that I hope everyone agrees with so they will not become a point of debate on this thread. First I like to point out some similarities about Angels and men, the main point is that they both were given free will to choose between following God's instructions and not following God's instructions. Another similarity is that both the fallen angels and fallen man have been sentenced to the same fiery hell for eternity.
If we can agree on those points than what I would like to discuss is the question, why is man been given a route to salvation when the fallen Angels have not? There is no salvation possible for Satan and his followers, but a clear path has been opened to fallen man to gain entry into God's kingdom.
The only explanation that can be given for the disparity in the treatment of the fallen Angels and the descendants of Adam, is that God in his own sovereign desire, chose not to give that path of forgiveness to those Angels that chose to follow Satan.
Of course you all know I'm going with this, and of course you are right it is the doctrine of election. Can you deny that God choosing to die for man not for Angels was sovereign right? If that's the case could he not also die for a group of chosen men and allow others to the fate that awaits all of the fallen Angels?
I like to hear what you have to say.
JB